If the heavenly Father gave Christ His Name during a time when J was not developed nor the Name Jesus did not appear in literature until 1700, why aren’t we going by the Name that Christ will be called? Is that not the Name whereby we must be saved? Act_4:12 Neither is there yeshu`ah in any other: for there is no other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved. If this scripture was written in the 1st Century, how can man insert a Name that came out in the 1700s? Look at Act 4:12 Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved. (KJV). Our Heavenly Father did not change what Christ will be called, can any man have the authority to change Christ’s Name to Jesus? Does Jesus’ name mean יהוה is my Salvation?